Seudónimo Seudónimo

02-05-2015
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A noble woman educated her children. Why was a peasant woman less likely to teach her own children?

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izzy51135 izzy51135

02-05-2015

The peasant would be less educated herself and unable to teach her children. While a noble was probably rich or had a decent amount of money and was educated as a child therefore able to educate her children/child.

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Аноним Аноним

02-05-2015

Because some of the peasant womens are less educated and had lot of chores to do.

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